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Guide for 312-97: EC-Council Certified DevSecOps Engineer (ECDE)

Quiz 312-97: EC-Council Certified DevSecOps Engineer (ECDE)

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Quiz

1/10
Scenario: You are tasked with reviewing the security posture of a project that uses multiple open-source
libraries. What is the first step you should take to assess the security risks of these libraries?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Perform an automated vulnerability scan of the libraries.
B.
Run static code analysis on the libraries’ source code.
C.
Rely on community feedback and star ratings to assess library security.
D.
Review the open-source licenses to ensure compliance.

Quiz

2/10
During a compliance audit, it was found that several environments do not meet HIPAA’s requirements for
secure data storage. What should be the next step to ensure compliance across the development
pipeline?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Restrict compliance checks to the production environment only to ensure smooth operation.
B.
Implement end-to-end encryption for all environments handling sensitive data.
C.
Perform post-deployment reviews once per quarter to identify and address compliance gaps.
D.
Delay compliance checks until the final pre-production stage to minimize delays.

Quiz

3/10
Scenario: Your organization is developing a web-based application that will handle sensitive data. How
can you ensure that security is incorporated into the design and development phases?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Focus on end-user security awareness training during the rollout phase.
B.
Rely on manual code reviews to ensure secure coding practices.
C.
Schedule a security audit once the application is near completion.
D.
Integrate static code analysis and threat modeling into the early stages of development.

Quiz

4/10
During the development of a cloud-based application, which practice should a team adopt to ensure
comprehensive threat modeling?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Conducting a manual review of security controls once per development sprint.
B.
Integrating automated threat modeling tools into the CI/CD pipeline for continuous threat assessment.
C.
Having quarterly third-party security audits to validate the threat model's effectiveness.
D.
Hosting monthly security workshops to discuss and update the threat model with new findings.

Quiz

5/10
What is a common security issue in traditional DevOps workflows that involves inadequate handling of
security alerts?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Inadequate monitoring of network traffic to detect anomalous activities that could indicate a breach.
B.
Overlooking the encryption of sensitive data at rest and in transit within the CI/CD pipeline.
C.
Not enforcing strong access control measures on production servers and development environments.
D.
Failing to prioritize and address high-severity security alerts in a timely manner.

Quiz

6/10
You are tasked with using Puppet to deploy and manage a new application across multiple servers.
What is the first step you should take to ensure the application deployment meets security and
compliance requirements?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Run a Puppet parser validate on your manifests to check for syntax errors.
B.
Define the node configuration in the site.pp file to assign specific classes to the servers.
C.
Import existing infrastructure configurations using Terraform to manage the Puppet code.
D.
Update the Hiera data with the new application's configuration parameters before deployment.

Quiz

7/10
Which control should be implemented to ensure compliance with GDPR in a DevSecOps environment
when managing user data across multiple systems?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Implementing strong passwords for all user accounts accessing personal data.
B.
Limiting access to personal data through a centralized authentication service.
C.
Using manual reviews to ensure data access logs are regularly checked.
D.
Enforcing encryption of personal data at rest and in transit.

Quiz

8/10
When establishing risk thresholds in a DevOps environment, what type of analysis is crucial for early
identification of potential security flaws?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)
B.
Manual Code Review
C.
Static Application Security Testing (SAST)
D.
Interactive Application Security Testing (IAST)

Quiz

9/10
In a scenario where a software release pipeline is being designed, which integration would be most
effective for early detection and remediation of security vulnerabilities?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Adding real-time threat detection systems during the deployment stage to monitor and react to issues immediately.
B.
Configuring manual security reviews to be conducted by the QA team before any code is pushed to production.
C.
Setting up periodic security audits by an external agency at the end of every release cycle.
D.
Implementing automated security scans during the continuous integration process to ensure each integration is checked.

Quiz

10/10
Fill in the blank: To automate vulnerability scans in a DevSecOps pipeline, integrating _____ with
Jenkins ensures that known security issues are continuously checked for in each build.
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Regular penetration testing
B.
Open-source vulnerability databases
C.
Manual security code reviews
D.
Quarterly security audits
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Info quiz:

  • Quiz name:312-97: EC-Council Certified DevSecOps Engineer (ECDE)
  • Total number of questions:500
  • Number of questions for the test:50
  • Pass score:80%

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