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Quiz

1/10
The Shipping Business
A broker is fixing a parcel of a chemical which the IBC Code assigns to ship type 2. What does that classification tell him about the vessel he must find?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
The ship may be any product tanker with segregated ballast, because tank location is only regulated for type 1 cargoes.
B.
The ship must be a single hull vessel with cargo tanks at the ship's side so that the cargo can be discharged by gravity.
C.
The ship must offer an intermediate degree of protective location and damage survival capability, with cargo tanks set inboard of the shell, and must name the product on its Certificate of Fitness.
D.
The ship needs only an oil tanker certificate, because type 2 products are treated as persistent oil for construction purposes.

Quiz

2/10
P&I Insurance History, Operation and Practice
A maritime historian is explaining why the British mutual hull clubs of the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries went into sharp decline after 1824. Which explanation is correct?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
The Merchant Shipping Act of that period made mutual hull insurance unlawful for British registered vessels
B.
Lloyd's underwriters were forbidden to write hull risks, forcing all business into the new joint stock companies
C.
Repeal of the statutory monopoly enjoyed by the two chartered corporations opened company hull underwriting to competition, and falling market rates removed the clubs' cost advantage
D.
The clubs were dissolved by their own members because unlimited calls had been declared unenforceable by the courts

Quiz

3/10
Underwriting, Loss Prevention and Claims Handling
A newly appointed underwriting assistant is told that all entries in an International Group club are aligned to a single common expiry, so that the whole book is rated and renewed together each year. At what point does the standard P&I policy year begin and end?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Noon GMT on 1 January
B.
Noon GMT on 1 July
C.
Noon GMT on 20 February
D.
Midnight local time at the ship's port of registry on 31 December

Quiz

4/10
People Risks
A flag State inspector boards a bulk carrier and reviews the seafarer employment agreements held by the master. Which statement correctly reflects the requirements of the Maritime Labour Convention 2006 relating to those agreements?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
A seafarer employment agreement may be concluded orally provided that wages are paid monthly and the master keeps a written note of the terms agreed with each seafarer.
B.
The agreement need only be signed by the master on behalf of the shipowner, because the seafarer accepts the terms by joining the ship and drawing wages.
C.
The seafarer must have an opportunity to examine and seek advice on the agreement before signing, must hold an original signed copy, and where a collective agreement forms part of the terms a copy must be available on board.
D.
The agreement need not mention repatriation entitlements, because repatriation is governed exclusively by the national law of the flag State and not by the contract.

Quiz

5/10
Cargo Risks
A cargo receiver wants to sue the carrier under a liner bill of lading printed on a time charterer's headed form; the bill is signed "for and on behalf of the Master" by port agents and contains a demise clause. Under an English law analysis, who is most likely to be treated as the contractual carrier?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
The time charterer, because the bill is issued on its stationery and carries its house logo and booking reference
B.
The port agent who physically signed the bill, since it acted as principal in issuing the document
C.
The registered owner or demise charterer of the vessel, because the signature is for the Master and the demise clause so provides
D.
Whichever party the receiver nominates, because a holder may elect its carrier once the goods are damaged

Quiz

6/10
Collision, FFO and Pollution
In a crossing situation the give-way vessel failed to keep out of the way; the stand-on vessel held her course and speed until collision was inevitable and only then went hard to starboard with engines full ahead. How will a tribunal most likely treat the stand-on vessel's conduct when apportioning blame?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
A stand-on vessel that obeys the duty to keep her course and speed can never be found at fault, so the give-way vessel must bear one hundred per cent.
B.
Any proved breach of the COLREGs by both ships results automatically in an equal fifty-fifty division of liability.
C.
She may be found partly to blame, because the rules permitted and later required her to take avoiding action once it was apparent the give-way vessel was not acting, and the causative potency of that failure is weighed in the apportionment.
D.
The give-way vessel's earlier breach is the sole effective cause, so any later fault of the stand-on vessel is disregarded.

Quiz

7/10
Towage, Salvage, General Average and Wreck Removal
A handysize bulk carrier arrives at a European port and is assisted to her berth by harbour tugs engaged on the port operator's standard towage conditions. One tug girts, capsizes and damages a moored barge, and the tug owner demands an indemnity from the shipowner under those conditions. How does the shipowner's P&I cover normally respond?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Cover is excluded outright because the shipowner accepted an indemnity in favour of the tug owner.
B.
Cover responds only if the club approved the port's towage conditions in writing before the ship's arrival.
C.
Cover responds, because liabilities arising out of customary towage of the entered ship for the purpose of entering, leaving or manoeuvring within a port in the ordinary course of trading are covered without prior approval of the terms.
D.
Cover responds only up to the tug owner's own proportion of fault as determined by the local court.

Quiz

8/10
The Shipping Business
A Capesize bulk carrier's particulars state "strengthened for heavy cargoes, holds 2, 4, 6 and 8 may be empty". What does this indicate?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
The vessel is structurally reinforced to carry high density cargo such as iron ore in alternate holds, which concentrates weight and produces high local and hull girder loads.
B.
The vessel may only carry heavy cargo if the alternate holds are filled with water ballast to keep her on her marks.
C.
The vessel is permitted to leave holds empty solely when carrying grain, to satisfy grain stability requirements.
D.
The vessel has been converted from an ore/oil carrier and the empty holds are permanently sealed slop tanks.

Quiz

9/10
P&I Insurance History, Operation and Practice
The Shipowners' Mutual Protection Society was established in 1855. Which statement best describes the risks it was created to cover?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Loss of or damage to the entered ship itself, in competition with the hull market
B.
Liabilities left uninsured by hull policies, in particular the uninsured quarter of collision liability and claims for loss of life and personal injury
C.
Cargo shortage and damage claims brought by bill of lading holders
D.
Freight, demurrage and defence costs arising from charterparty disputes

Quiz

10/10
Underwriting, Loss Prevention and Claims Handling
An owner decides in late January that he wishes to move his fleet to another club at the coming renewal, but his broker discovers that the period for giving notice of withdrawal under the club's rules has already expired. What is the normal consequence?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
The entry continues automatically into the next policy year on the terms set by the club and the member remains liable for the calls for that year
B.
The member may withdraw at any time on fourteen days notice without any financial consequence
C.
The club is obliged to release the member on request because mutual insurance is voluntary in nature
D.
Withdrawal takes effect immediately and the member forfeits only the advance call already paid
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  • Quiz name:ONL-151-OCT-18: Module 1: The Shipping Business
  • Total number of questions:300
  • Number of questions for the test:50
  • Pass score:80%

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