Quiz about Certification Exam, SHRM, Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional

Question 1

Which of the following is closest to the national LWDI average for privatesector organizations?
(A). 250
(B). 25
(C). 2.5
(D). 0.25

Accepted Answer

Option C is correct.
Explanation: The national lost work day index (LWDI) average for privatesector organizations is
approximately 2.5. This means that there are about 2.5 lost work days per day for every hundred
employees. This figure is calculated by the Occupational Health and Safety Administration. LWDI is
calculated by dividing the number of workdays missed because of personal injury for each hundred
employees, dividing by the total number of employees, and then multiplying by a hundred.

Explanation:

Question 2

Which of the following types of employee rating systems usually results in rating employees
along a bell curve?
(A). Paired comparison
(B). Forced distribution
(C). Ranking
(D). Nominal scale

Accepted Answer

Option B is correct.
Explanation: A forced distribution usually results in rating employees along a bell curve. In a paired
comparison, each employee's performance viewed in the context of another employee's
performance. A ranking system is usually better for a smaller group of employees but can be difficult
to organize with a larger group. A nominal scale is not recognized as a type of employee rating
system.

Explanation:

Question 3

The role of the human resources professional regarding FMLA rules includes all of the following
except:
(A). Being familiar with FMLA requirements and changes
(B). Educating those in management about FMLA rules
(C). Developing an FMLA documentation policy for the company
(D). Working to avoid simultaneous FMLA leave among employees

Accepted Answer

Option D is correct.
Explanation: The human resources professional is not expected to avoid simultaneous leave within
the company. This may be inevitable, and the company cannot block employees from taking
approved FMLA leave. The human resources professional is, however, expected to be familiar with
FMLA requirements and changes, to educate management about FMLA rules, and to develop an
FMLA documentation policy for the company.

Explanation:

Question 4

Employers are legally allowed to check and review employee emails subject to which of the
following requirements?
(A). Immediate notification from the legal department of impending review
(B). Evidence to suggest wrongdoing on the employee's part
(C). Written policy informing employees of potential for email searches
(D). No notification is required, therefore employers may check and review employee emails at any
time
(E). Employers are not allowed to check or review employee emails without employee permission

Accepted Answer

Option C is correct.
Explanation: Employers are legally allowed to check and review employee email as long as they
provide a written policy informing employees of the potential for email searches. Without this
written policy, employers could legally file concerns about invasion of employee privacy. Answer
choice A is incorrect because immediate notification from the legal department of impending review
would not be sufficient. Answer choice B is incorrect because evidence of employee wrongdoing is
too late for an employer to implement a search policy. Answer choice D is incorrect because
notification is required. Although employers technically own the emails that employees send and
receive, they are not advised to search emails without a written search policy. Answer choice E is
incorrect because employers are allowed to check and review employee emails.

Explanation:

Question 5

A Scanlon Plan is an example of a(n)
(A). individual incentive.
(B). sales bonus.
(C). group incentive.
(D). Employee Stock Ownership Plan.

Accepted Answer

Option C is correct.
Explanation: A Scanlon Plan is an example of a group incentive. When a business implements a
Scanlon Plan, employees are given a share of whatever savings they can create for the company. In
order for a Scanlon Plan to work, employees must have access to the company's financial data. This is
considered a group incentive because it depends on the performance of the company as a whole and
because the reward is given to each employee in the same measure.

Explanation:

Question 6

In Alderfer's theory of motivation, what do the letters ERG stand for?
(A). energy, relatedness, and growth
(B). existence, responsibility, and growth
(C). energy, responsibility, and growth
(D). existence, relatedness, and growth

Accepted Answer

Option D is correct.
Explanation: In Alderfer's theory of motivation, the letters ERG stand for existence, relatedness, and
growth. Like Maslow, Alderfer asserted that basic needs must be met before a person can attend to
more sophisticated desires. Whereas Maslow defined the hierarchy of needs, in ascending levels of
importance, as physiological, safety, love, status, and esteem, Alderfer reduced it to three. The first,
existence, refers to all the activities aimed at maintaining life. The second, relatedness, refers to the
need for connection with other people. The third, growth, is the innate human desire for personal
evolution.

Explanation:

Question 7

When one company acquires another, what is the first step for the acquiring company's human
resources department?
(A). Survey of the workforce for both organizations
(B). Elimination of redundant positions
(C). Review of collective bargaining agreements
(D). Assurance of OSHA compliance

Accepted Answer

Option A is correct.
Explanation: When one company acquires another, the first step for the acquiring company's human
resources department is a survey of the workforce in both organizations. The goal is to identify
redundant or conflicting positions. It may be that some of the employees in the acquired organization
will need to be let go. Human resources departments will need to review the acquired organization's
collective bargaining agreements and ensure compliance with OSHA regulations, but these activities
should be performed subsequent to the workforce survey.

Explanation:

Question 8

In the event that a potential retaliatory action has occurred from an employer against an
employee, what is generally OSHA's first goal?
(A). Have employee reinstated with full benefits and back pay
(B). File criminal charges against employer for illegal retaliation
(C). Attempt reconciliation between employer and employee
(D). Protect employee by requiring continued pay without requiring a return to work

Accepted Answer

Option C is correct.
Explanation: OSHA's first goal is to attempt a reconciliation between the employee and his employer.
If there is a possibility of avoiding legal action, it should be taken to avoid weighing down the legal
system. (Thus answer choice B is not correct.) In the process of this reconciliation, OSHA might also
work to have the employee reinstated with full benefits and back pay, but this would reflect the
individual situation and is part of the larger reconciliation process instead of the primary goal. OSHA
could step in to protect the employee by requiring continued pay without requiring a return to work,
but again this would reflect an individual situation and would not necessarily be the primary goal.

Explanation:

Question 9

Jocelyn has the responsibility of interviewing the candidates who have applied for an open
position as a mechanic in an auto repair shop. As she meets and interviews the various candidates,
she is not pleased with the potential employees that she encounters during this interview. One of the
candidates, however, is a strongly built young woman with a tough demeanor. Despite this woman's
limited resume and experience, Jocelyn decides that this particular candidate is the best employee
choice because her appearance fits the image that the auto repair shop will need. In this, Jocelyn is
demonstrating which of the following interview biases?

$\"Certification$

Accepted Answer

Option A is correct.
Explanation: In this case, Jocelyn is allowing a stereotyping bias (how she perceives a female
mechanic) to guide her decision about which candidate will be best for the position in the auto repair
shop. Answer choice B is incorrect because a similartome bias occurs when the interviewer is
influenced by similar interests or a similar background in the candidate. Answer choice C is incorrect
because a recency bias occurs when the interviewer compares a candidate to the previously
interviewed candidate. Answer choice D is incorrect because a first impression bias happens when an
immediate impression of a candidate determines a decision. And answer choice E is incorrect
because a gut feeling bias relies on a preference or intuition to make a decision about a candidate.

Explanation:

Question 10

Which of the following are not steps in an analysis of training?
(A). Establish a clear objective for training
(B). Collect data about potential problems and review it
(C). Analyze where the organization is lacking in its objective and its outcome
(D). Develop new and more effective training material
(E). Consider options with respect to the organization's available budget and time

Accepted Answer

Option D is correct.
Explanation: The development of new and more effective training material might be an end result of
training analysis, but it is not necessarily one of the primary steps within the process. Answer choices
A, B, C, and E, however, all reflect specific steps within the process of analyzing training and are thus
incorrect.

Explanation:

Quiz Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional

Free Test - Simulator Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional

Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional Practice test unlocks all online simulator questions

What to expect from our Society for Human Resource Management Certified Professional practice tests and how to prepare for any exam?