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Guide for CCDS-O: Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O)

Quiz CCDS-O: Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O)

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/ 10

Quiz

1/10
Which of the following is the major difference between MIPS and APMs?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
MIPS participation is required by eligible providers (non-participation results in a financial penalty), and APM participation is voluntary.
B.
APM participation is required by eligible providers (non-participation results in a financial penalty), and MIPS participation is voluntary.
C.
MIPS and APM participation is voluntary by eligible providers.
D.
MIPS and APM participation is required of eligible providers.

Quiz

2/10
Review]
A 76-year-old patient presents for a wellness visit. The patient’s vitals are BP 120/80, T 98.7, R 19,
and there are no abnormal findings in the exam. The patient has COPD, home oxygen, anemia,
hypertension, diabetes, fatigue, and weakness. The patient’s medications are called into the
pharmacy and home health resource of choice. Which of the following is the BEST query option?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Acute blood loss anemia
B.
Peripheral neuropathy
C.
Chronic respiratory failure
D.
CKD

Quiz

3/10
A patient with a PMH of DM, GERD, and HTN is seen in the clinic with complaints of stuffy nose,
fever, and feeling tired for the past four days. The patient’s medication list includes SSI, Prilosec, and
Diovan. The provider documented: “Congestion, fever, malaise, DM, GERD, HTN. Continue OTC
medications for congestion and fever. Rest. Return to the clinic in one week if symptoms persist.”
Which of the following ICD-10-CM guidelines BEST applies to how this scenario should be coded?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Selection of first-listed condition
B.
Codes that describe symptoms and signs
C.
Uncertain diagnoses
D.
Encounters for general medical examination with abnormal finding

Quiz

4/10
Review]
A patient returns to a PCP for follow-up care related to a UTI. The provider documents “stage 3 CKD”
as determined by a single eGFR of 52 mL/min. Which of the following actions should the CDI
specialist take?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Add diagnosis of CKD stage 3 to claim, as it is reportable.
B.
Review CKD staging criteria with provider.
C.
Delete CKD diagnosis from claim as it was not treated during this encounter.
D.
Query for stage 4 CKD.

Quiz

5/10
The table below provides data indicating the use of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) diagnosis code
assignment for years 1 and 2 of an ambulatory CDI program. Based on the data and if the HCC value
assigned to MDD was 0.299, which of the following should be inferred?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
The number of patients increased with an equal increase in use of MDD specified and a decrease in MDD, unspecified, not impacting future cost benchmarking.
B.
The number of patients increased with an increase in use of MDD specified and a decrease in MDD, unspecified, impacting future cost benchmarking.
C.
The number of patients increased with the difference between MDD specified and MDD, unspecified insignificant, not impacting future cost benchmarking.
D.
The number of patients increased with an increase in use of MDD specified and an increase in MDD, unspecified, impacting future cost benchmarking.

Quiz

6/10
Review]
When should the assignment of a not elsewhere classified (NEC)/other specified code be reported?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
When the information in the medical record is insufficient to assign a more specific code
B.
When the information in the medical record provides detail for when a specific code does not exist
C.
When two conditions cannot occur together
D.
When two codes may be required to fully describe a condition

Quiz

7/10
Review]
A patient is evaluated in the primary care clinic for chest pain, slight shortness of breath, and mild
nausea. Documentation includes an ECG and chest x-ray to rule out MI. Which of the following
diagnoses are reportable?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Angina pectoris, unspecified, shortness of breath, and nausea
B.
Rule out MI, shortness of breath, and nausea
C.
Acute MI, chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea
D.
Other chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea

Quiz

8/10
Which of the following is true of the RAF metric?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
It predicts how much the individual provider will be reimbursed for the concurrent practice year.
B.
It is based only on demographic factors such as Medicaid status, gender, or aged/disabled.
C.
It is a relative measure of the probable costs to meet the healthcare needs of the individual beneficiary.
D.
It is used to calculate each primary care office visit reimbursement based on documentation of chronic conditions.

Quiz

9/10
Review]
Provider documentation states: “Type 2 Diabetes with bilateral peripheral arteriosclerotic disease of
LE. Bilateral pedal pulses present. Review Hgb A1C and CBC. No change in treatment. Hypertension
evaluated and well controlled on Lopressor.” Which of the following conditions should be coded?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Diabetes without complications, atherosclerosis bilateral legs
B.
Diabetes with peripheral angiopathy, hypertension
C.
Diabetes with peripheral angiopathy, atherosclerosis bilateral legs, hypertension
D.
Diabetes with peripheral angiopathy, atherosclerosis bilateral legs, diabetes with circulatory complication, hypertension

Quiz

10/10
When reviewing physician metrics, a CDI specialist notes upward trends in the use of unspecified
diagnoses. Which of the following diagnoses provides the BEST opportunity to positively influence
the providers’ RAF score in the CMS-HCC model?
Select the answer
1 correct answer
A.
Cystic fibrosis, unspecified
B.
Kaposi’s sarcoma, unspecified
C.
Arthropathic psoriasis, unspecified
D.
Angina pectoris, unspecified
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Info quiz:

  • Quiz name:CCDS-O: Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O)
  • Total number of questions:140
  • Number of questions for the test:50
  • Pass score:80%

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